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Natural Numbers

Table Of Contents

  1. Table Of Contents
  2. Peano Axioms
  3. Recursive Definitions
  4. Addition
  5. Order
  6. Special Forms of Induction
  7. Multiplication
(Natural Numbers)

A natural number is an element of the set

N={0,1,2,3 }\mathbb{N} = \{0,1,2,3\cdots \}

which is obtained from 0 and counting forward indefinitely.

Peano Axioms

We start with axioms to help clarify this.

We then make an assumption: That the set N\mathbb{N} which satisfies these five axioms is called the set of natural numbers. With these 5 axioms, we can construct sequences

Recursive Definitions

(Recursive Definition)

Suppose for each natural number nn, we have some function fn:NNf_n:\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N} from the natural numbers to the natural numbers. Then we can assign a unique natural number ana_n to each natural number nn, such that a0=ca_0 = c and an++=fn(an)a_{n++} = f_n(a_n) for each natural number nn.

Addition

(Addition Of Natural Numbers)

Let n be a natural number. (nN)(n \in N). To add zero to m, we define 0+m:=m0+m:=m Now suppose inductively that we have defined how to add nn to mm. Then we can add n++n++ to mm by defining(n++n++) + m := (n+m)++

For any natural number n+0=nn + 0=n
Proof. We use induction,

The base case, n = 0,

n=0,0+0=0n+0=n(n++)+0=(n+0)++=(n++)\begin{aligned} n & = 0, 0 + 0 = 0 \\ n+0 & = n \\ (n++) + 0 & = (n+0)++ = (n++) \end{aligned}

Suppose inductively, that n+0=nn+0=n,

For n=n++n=n++,

(n++)+0=(n+0)++We know that n+0=n(n++)+0=(n++)\begin{aligned} (n++) + 0 & = (n+0)++ \\ \text{We know that $n+0=n$} \\ (n++) + 0 & = (n++) \end{aligned}

For any natural numbers nn and mm,

n+(m++)=(n+m)++n + (m++) = (n+m)++
Proof. Inducting on nn while keeping mm fixed,
n=0,0+(m++)=(0+m)++0+(m++)=(m++)\begin{aligned} n & = 0, \\ 0 + (m++) & = (0+m)++ \\ 0 + (m++) & = (m++) \end{aligned}
This we know is true from the definition of addition (0+m:=m)(0+m:=m)

Suppose inductively, that n+(m++)=(n+m)++n+(m++) = (n+m)++ is true. For n=(n++)n=(n++),

(n++)+(m++)=((n++)+m)++From the definition of addition=(n+(m++))++=((n+m)++))++\begin{aligned} (n++) + (m++) & = ((n++)+m)++ & \text{From the definition of addition} \\ & =(n+(m++))++ \\ & =((n+m)++))++ \end{aligned}

Putting m = 0, we get n+1=n++n+1 = n++

(Addition is commutative)

For any natural numbers nn and mm, n+m=m+nn+m=m+n

Proof. We induct over nn, For the base case, n=0n=0,

We must show that m+0=0+mm+0 = 0+m From the definition of addition, we have

0+m=m0+m = m

As shown earlier, we have

m+0=mm+0 = m

This is clearly true for n=0n=0.

Now suppose inductively that m+n=n+mm+n = n+m

For n=n++n=n++, we must show that m+(n++)=(n++)+mm+(n++) = (n++) + m

We know from the definition of addition that,

(n++)+m:=(m+n)++(n++) + m := (m+n)++

And we proved earlier that,

m+(n++)=(m+n)++m+(n++) = (m+n)++

Therefore,

m+(n++)=(n++)+mm+(n++) = (n++)+m

(Associativity)

For any natural numbers, a,ba,b and cc, we have (a+b)+c=a+(b+c)(a+b)+c = a+(b+c)

Proof. We take (a+b)+n=a+(b+n)(a+b)+n = a + (b+n)

Inducting over n,

For n=0n=0,

We have in the LHS,

=(a+b)+0Since n+0=n=a+b\begin{aligned} & =(a+b)+0 & \text{Since $n+0 = n$} \\ & =a+b \end{aligned}

On the RHS,

=a+(b+0)Since n+0=n=a+b\begin{aligned} & =a + (b+0) & \text{Since $n+0 = n$} \\ & =a + b \end{aligned}

Suppose inductively that (a+b)+n=a+(b+n)(a+b)+n = a+(b+n),

For n=n++n=n++, We have to show that (a+b)+(n++)=a+(b+(n++))(a+b)+(n++) = a+(b+(n++))

On the LHS we have,

=(a+b)+(n++)=(a+b+n)++(From the lemma m+(n++)=(m+n)++)\begin{aligned} & =(a+b)+(n++) \\ & =(a+b+n)++ & \text{(From the lemma $m+(n++) = (m+n)++$)} \\ \end{aligned}

On the RHS we have,

=a+(b+(n++))=a+(b+n)++(From the lemma m+(n++)=(m+n)++)=(a+b+n)++\begin{aligned} & =a+(b+(n++)) \\ & =a+(b+n)++ & \text{(From the lemma $m+(n++) = (m+n)++$)} \\ & =(a+b+n)++ \end{aligned}

LHS = RHS

(Cancellation Law)

Let a,b,ca,b,c be natural numbers such that a+b=a+ca+b=a+c. Then we have b=cb=c.

Proof. We have,

n+b=n+cn+b=n+c

Inducting over n, For the base case, n=0n=0

0+b=0+cb=c\begin{aligned} 0 + b & = 0 + c \\ b & = c \end{aligned}

Suppose inductively that n+b=n+cn+b=n+c For n=n++n=n++,

(n++)+b=(n++)+c(n++)+b=(n++)+c

On the LHS

=(n++)+b=(n+b)++\begin{aligned} & =(n++) + b \\ & =(n+b)++ \end{aligned}

On the RHS

=(n++)+c=(n+c)++\begin{aligned} & =(n++) + c \\ & =(n+c)++ \end{aligned}

We know from the inductive hypothesis that,

Ifn+b=n+c,thenb=c\text{If} n+b = n+c, \text{then} b = c

Thus we have,

b++=c++b++ = c++

(Positive Natural Numbers)

All numbers where,

n0,nNn \neq 0, n \in \mathbb{N}
("")

If aa is a positive natural number and bb is a natural number, then a+ba+b is positive.

Proof. Inducting over b,

For bb = 0,

a+0=a\begin{aligned} a+0 = a \end{aligned}
This proves the base case, since we know a is positive.

Now, suppose inductively, that (a+b)(a+b) is positive.

For (a+(n++))(a+(n++)),

a+(n++)=(a+n)++\begin{aligned} a+(n++) = (a+n)++ \end{aligned}
We know from Axiom 3 that n++0n++ \neq 0. Thus we close the inductive loop.
For every aa, there exists a unique bb such that b++=ab++ = a
Proof. Proof by contradiction, Suppose that there are two different increments, m++m++, n++n++ that equal to aa,

We have,

m++=an++=a\begin{aligned} m++ & = a \\ n++ & = a \end{aligned}

Then we can say,

m++=n++m+1=n+1m=n(By Cancellation Law)\begin{aligned} m++ & = n++ & \\ m + 1 & = n+1 & \\ m & = n & \text{(By Cancellation Law)} \end{aligned}

But we said that m and n are different numbers which increment to aa.

Therefore, we can conclude that there is only one number bb which increments to aa

Order

(Order)

Let n and m be natural numbers we say that nn is greater than or equal to m, and write nmn \geq m iff we have n=m+an = m + a for some natural number aa. We say that n>mn > m when nmn \geq m and nmn \neq m

(Properties Of Order)

Let a,b,ca,b,c be natural numbers then

  1. (Order is reflexive) aaa \geq a

  2. (Order is transitive) If aba \geq b and bcb \geq c, then aca \geq c

  3. (Order is antisymmetric) If aba \geq b and bab \geq a then a=ba=b

  4. (Addition preserves order) aba \geq b if and only if a+cb+ca+c \geq b+c

  5. a<ba < b if and only if a++ba++ \leq b

  6. a<ba < b if and only if b=a+db= a+d for some positive number d.

Proof. 1. Proving order is reflexive, aaa \geq a

We know that, a=a+0a = a + 0 From the definition of order, We can write that aba \geq b when a=b+da = b + d where dNd \in \mathbb{N} Thus aaa \geq a.

  1. Proving order is transitive, aba \geq b and bcb \geq c then aca \geq c

    We write,

    a=b+db=c+ea=c+e+d\begin{aligned} a & = b + d \\ b & = c + e \\ a & = c + e + d \end{aligned}
    We can say that since (e+d)N(e+d) \in \mathbb{N}

    We define f:=(e+d)f := (e+d) Where fNf \in \mathbb{N}

    a=c+(f)\begin{aligned} a & = c + (f) \end{aligned}

    Thus we can say,

If ab,bcthenac\text{If } a \geq b, b \geq c \text{then} a \geq c
  1. Proving order is antisymmetric, If aba \geq b and bab \geq a then a=ba=b We can say,

    a=b+db=a+e\begin{aligned} a = b + d \\ b = a + e \\ \end{aligned}
    Where d,eNd,e \in \mathbb{N}

    a=(a+e)+db=(b+d)+e\begin{aligned} a = (a + e) + d \\ b = (b + d) + e \\ \end{aligned}

    Then we can write,

    a=a+(e+d)b=b+(d+e)\begin{aligned} a = a + (e + d) \\ b = b + (d + e) \\ \end{aligned}

    Then we can say that (e+d)(e+d) and (d+e)(d+e) are 0.

    We know that if a+b=0a + b = 0 then a,b=0a,b = 0

    Thus dd and ee are 0.

    a=b+da=b\begin{aligned} a = b + d \\ a = b \end{aligned}

  2. Proving a<ba < b if and only if b=a+db =a+d for some positive number d If b=a+db = a+d where dd is a positive natural number, d0d \neq 0

    Which means that ba+0b \neq a + 0 or bab \neq a

    This means that b is strictly greater than a

    If a<ba<b then aba \geq b and aba \neq b

    So if aba \geq b Then,

    a=b+d\begin{aligned} a = b + d \\ \end{aligned}
    But,
    abab+0d0\begin{aligned} a \neq b \\ a \neq b + 0 \\ d \neq 0 \end{aligned}
    Thus d cannot be 0. dd can only be a positive natural number.

  3. Proving addition preserves order, aba \geq b if and only if a+cb+ca + c \geq b + c Proving aba \geq b if a+cb+Ca + c \geq b + C

    Where dNd \in \mathbb{N}

    a+c=b+c+dBy definitiona+c=(b+d)+ca=(b+d)By cancellation lawab\begin{aligned} a + c & = b + c + d & & \text{By definition} \\ a + c & = (b+d) + c & \\ a & = (b+d) & & \text{By cancellation law} \\ a & \geq b \end{aligned}
    Proving a+cb+ca + c \geq b +c if aba \geq b

    We know,

    a=b+d\begin{aligned} a = b + d \\ \end{aligned}
    Where dNd \in \mathbb{N}

    We write a+c using what we know from above,

    a+c=b+d+ca+c=b+c+d(a+c)=(b+c)+da+cb+c\begin{aligned} a + c & = b + d + c \\ a + c & = b + c + d \\ (a + c) & = (b + c) + d \\ a + c & \geq b + c \end{aligned}

  4. Proving a<ba < b if and only if a++ba++ \leq b Proving a<ba < b if a++ba++ \leq b

    We can write,

    a++=b+dWhere dNa+++d=ba+(d++)=b\begin{aligned} a++ & = b + d & \text{Where $d \in \mathbb{N}$} \\ a++ + d & = b \\ a + (d++) & = b \\ \end{aligned}
    Since from Axiom 3, we know that 0 is not an increment of any natural number, (d++0)(d++ \neq 0) Therefore,

    a<b\begin{aligned} a & < b \end{aligned}

(Trichotomy Of Order)

Let aa and bb be natural numbers. Then exactly one of the following statements is true: a<b,a=bora>ba<b, a=b or a>b

Proof. First we show that no more than one of the statements is true. If a<ba < b then aba \neq b by definition. If a>ba > b then aba \neq b by definition. If a>ba > b and a<ba < b then a=ba = b, which we proved earlier.

Now to show that exactly one of these statements are true. We induct on a,

When a = 0, We know that,

b=0+b(bN)b0\begin{aligned} b & = 0 + b & (\forall b \in \mathbb{N}) \\ b & \geq 0 & \end{aligned}

suppose inductively that exactly one of the above statements are true for a and b. for a++a++, we take each statement. first for a>ba > b, we have

a>ba=b+d(a++)=(b+d)++incrementing both sides(a++)=b+d++from lemma(a++)>bif dn then d++n\begin{aligned} a & > b \\ a & = b + d \\ (a++) & = (b + d)++ & \text{incrementing both sides} \\ (a++) & = b + d++ & \text{from lemma} \\ (a++) & > b & \text{if $d \in \mathbb{n}$ then $d++ \in \mathbb{n}$} \end{aligned}

for a=ba = b

a=b(a++)=(b)++(a++)=b+1a>b\begin{aligned} a & = b \\ (a++) & = (b)++ \\ (a++) & = b + 1 \\ a & > b \\ \end{aligned}

for a<ba < b, we get,

a<ba+d=b(a+d)++=b++(a++)+d=b++(a++)+d=b+1\begin{aligned} a &< b \\ a + d & = b \\ (a + d)++ & = b++ \\ (a++) + d & = b++ \\ (a++) + d & = b + 1 \\ \end{aligned}

we have two cases, if d=1d = 1, then by cancellation law

a++=ba++ = b

if d1d \neq 1 then

a++<ba++ < b

but never both, which concludes the inductive loop.

Special Forms of Induction

(Backwards Induction)

Let m0m_0 be a natural number, and let P(m)P(m) be a property pertaining to an arbitrary natural number mm. Suppose that for each mm0m \geq m_0, we have the following implication: if P(m)P(m') is true for all natural numbers m0m<mm_0 \leq m' < m, then P(m)P(m) is also true.( In particular this means that P(m0)P(m_0) is true, since in this case the hypothesis is vacuous. ) Then we can conclude that P(m)P(m) is true for all natural numbers mm0m \geq m_0.

Proof. For a property Q(n)Q(n), which is the property that P(m)P(m') is true for m0m<nm_0 \leq m < n, then P(n)P(n) is true...Then it is true mm0\forall \ m \geq m_0

For Q(0)Q(0), we can say that the statement is vacuous since the conditions are not satisfied for both when m0=0m_{0} = 0 and when m0<0m_{0} <0

Suppose inductively that Q(n)Q(n) is true.

Which means that,

P(m) is true for m0mnm_{0} \leq m \leq n

Then for Q(n++),

We know that the property P(m)P(m) is true for m0mnm_{0} \le m \le n Take the upper limit of the range,

m0nm_0 \leq n

We can rewrite this as,

m0<n++m_0 < n++

Since a<ba<b if and only if a++ba++ \leq b

So we have the property is true for m0m<n++m_0 \leq m < n++, the property is true for P(n++)P(n++), since that is how we chose Q(n)Q(n)

Thus Q(n++)Q(n++) is true, closing the inductive loop.

Since we know that P(m)P(m) is true for any nn larger than mm, we can then say that mm0m \geq m_{0}

(Induction starting from the base case nn)

Let n be a natural number, and let P(m)P(m) be a property pertaining to the natural numbers such that whenever P(m)P(m) is true, P(m++)P(m++) is true. Show that if P(n)P(n) is true, then P(m)P(m) is true for all mnm \ge n.

Proof. We can cast this into a standard inductive proof. Consider a property Q(m)Q(m) defined as P(n+m)P(n + m). Inducting over mm:
When m=0m = 0,
Q(0)=P(n+0)=P(n)\begin{aligned} Q(0) & = P(n + 0) \\ & = P(n) \end{aligned}
which we have taken to be true. Suppose inductively that Q(m)=P(n+m)Q(m) = P(n + m) is true. Then, from the definition of P(m)P(m), we know that P((n+m)++)P((n + m)++) is true.
P((n+m)++)=P(n+m++)=Q(m++)Q(m++)is true.\begin{aligned} P((n + m)++) & = P(n + m++) \\ & = Q(m++) \\ & \Rightarrow Q(m++) \text{is true.} \end{aligned}

Multiplication

(Multiplication Of Natural Numbers)

Let mm be a natural number. To multiply zero to mm, we define 0×m:=00 \times m := 0. Now suppose inductively that we have defined how to multiply nn to mm. Then we can multiply n++n++ to mm by defining (n++)×m:=(n×m)+m(n++) \times m := (n \times m) + m

We can say 0×m=00 \times m = 0, 1×m=0+m1 \times m = 0 + m, 2×m=0+m+m2 \times m= 0 + m + m and so on.

Prove that multiplication is commutative
Proof. We use the way we proved that addition is commutative as a blueprint. There are two things we need to prove first.

  1. For any natural number, nn, n×0=0n \times 0 = 0

  2. For any natural numbers, nn and mm, n×(m++)=(n×m)+mn \times (m++) = (n \times m) + m

First we prove,

  1. For any natural number, nn, n×0=nn \times 0 = n We induct over nn, For n=0n = 0,

0×0=00 \times 0 = 0

Which is true from the definition Now suppose inductively, that n×0=0n \times 0 = 0, For (n++)×0(n++) \times 0, From the definition we can write this as,

(n++)×0=(n×0)+0We know that n×0=0(n++)×0=0+0(n++)×0=0\begin{aligned} (n++) \times 0 & = (n \times 0) + 0 \\ \text{We know that $n \times 0 = 0$} (n++) \times 0 & = 0 + 0 \\ (n++) \times 0 & = 0 \end{aligned}
Therefore,

n×0=nn \times 0 = n
  1. For any natural numbers, nn and mm, n×(m++)=(n×m)+mn \times (m++) = (n \times m) + m We induct over nn, (keeping mm fixed)

    For n=0n = 0, We know from the definition for multiplication with zero that,

    0×(m++)=0We also know that(m++)×0=(m×0)+0(m++)×0=0(m++)×0=0×(m++)=(0×m)+m\begin{aligned} 0 \times (m++) = 0 \\ \text{We also know that} \\ (m++) \times 0 & = (m \times 0 ) + 0 \\ (m++) \times 0 & = 0 \\ (m++) \times 0 = 0 \times (m++) & = (0 \times m) + m \end{aligned}

    Suppose inductively that n×(m++)=(n×m)+mn \times (m++) = (n \times m) + m For n=(n++)n = (n++) To prove (n++)×(m++)=((n++)×m)+m(n++) \times (m++) = ((n++) \times m) + m,

    (n++)×(m++)=(n×(m++))+m++We can rewrite RHS using the inductive hypothesis(n++)×(m++)=((n×m)+m)+m++\begin{aligned} (n++) \times (m++) & = (n \times (m++)) + m++ \\ \text{We can rewrite RHS using the inductive hypothesis} \\ (n++) \times (m++) & = ((n \times m) + m) + m++ \end{aligned}
    Taking the LHS, we write

    (n++)×(m++)=(n×(m++))+m++From the definition=(n×m)+m)+m++From the inductive hypothesis=(n×m)+m+(m++)Associativity of addition=(n×m)+(m++)+mCommutativity of addition\begin{aligned} (n++) \times (m++) & = (n \times (m++)) + m++ & \text{From the definition} \\ & = (n \times m)+ m) + m++ & \text{From the inductive hypothesis} \\ & = (n \times m)+ m + (m++) & \text{Associativity of addition} \\ & = (n \times m)+ (m++) + m & \text{Commutativity of addition} \end{aligned}

    We can say that LHS = RHS, closing the inductive loop

Now we can finally get on with proving that multiplication is commutative, armed with the lemmas we've proved here we can prove this similarly to how we proved addition is commutative We are proving, m×n=n×mm \times n = n \times m We fix mm and induct over nn

For n=0n=0,

0×m=0From the definitionm×0=0Proved earlierm×0=0×m\begin{aligned} 0 \times m & = 0 & \text{From the definition} \\ m \times 0 & = 0 & \text{Proved earlier} \\ m \times 0 & = 0 \times m \end{aligned}

Suppose inductively that m×n=n×mm \times n = n \times m is true.

For proving m×(n++)=(n++)×mm \times (n++) = (n++) \times m, Take the LHS,

m×(n++)=(n×m)+mProved earlier\begin{aligned} m \times (n++) & = (n \times m) + m & \text{Proved earlier} \\ \end{aligned}
Take the RHS,
(n++)×m=(n×m)+mFrom the definition\begin{aligned} (n++) \times m & = (n \times m) + m & \text{From the definition} \\ \end{aligned}
We can see that LHS = RHS, closing the inductive loop

Thus multiplication is commutative

Let n,mn,m be natural numbers, then n×m=0n \times m = 0 if and only if at least one of n,mn,m is equal to zero. In particular, if both n,mn,m are both positive, then nmnm is positive
Proof. First we prove if both n,mn,m are both positive, then nmnm is positive We have, nn and mm such that n,m>0n,m > 0

Let a,bNa,b \in N such that a++=m,b++=na++ = m, b++ = n

n×m=(a++)(b++)=(a++)b+(a++)m×n++=m×n+m=ab+b+(a++)m++×n=m×n+n=ab+b+(m)m++×n=m×n+n\begin{aligned} n \times m & = (a++)(b++) & \\ & = (a++)b + (a++) & m \times n++ = m \times n + m \\ & = ab + b + (a++) & m++ \times n = m \times n + n \\ & = ab + b + (m) & m++ \times n = m \times n + n \\ \end{aligned}
Since we know that m>0m>0, then m+dm+d where dNd \in \mathbb{N} is also greater than 0. Thus it's proved.

Now onto proving the first statement, Let n,mn,m be natural numbers, then n×m=0n \times m = 0 if and only if at least one of n,mn,m is equal to zero.

We have to prove it both ways, if n×m=0n\times m = 0 then at least one of n,mn,m is equal to zero.

Proving by contradiction when nm=0nm = 0 let's assume n,m0n,m \ne 0 meaning n,mn,m are positive natural numbers.

(Associativity Of Multiplication)

For any natural numbers, a,b,ca,b,c We have, a(b+c)=ab+aca(b+c) = ab + ac and (b+c)a=ba+ca(b+c)a = ba + ca

Proof. We only need to show the first identity, then the other would be implied by commutativity We keep aa and bb fixed, and induct over c.

For c=0c = 0, We have on the LHS,

a(b+0)=ab(b+0=b)\begin{aligned} a(b+0) & = ab & (b+0 = b) \\ \end{aligned}
We have on the RHS,
ab+ac=ab+a0=ab+0Since m×0=0=ab\begin{aligned} ab + ac & = ab + a0 & \\ & = ab + 0 & \text{Since $m \times 0 = 0$} \\ & = ab & \end{aligned}
LHS=RHS
This is true for the base case. Now suppose inductively that a(b+c)=ab+aca(b+c) = ab + ac

For c=(n++)c=(n++), We have on the LHS,

a(b+(n++))=a((b+n)++)Proved earlier=a(b+n)×am×(n++)=(m×n)+m\begin{aligned} a(b+(n++)) & = a((b+n)++) & \text{Proved earlier} \\ & = a(b+n) \times a & m \times (n++) = (m \times n) + m \\ \end{aligned}

We have on the RHS,

ab+ac=a(b+c)Inductive hypothesis\begin{aligned} ab + ac & = a(b+c) & \text{Inductive hypothesis} \end{aligned}

Thus, LHS = RHS

Closing the inductive loop.

(Virtual Cancellation Law)

Prove,

(a×b)×c=a×(b×c)(a \times b) \times c = a \times (b\times c)
Proof. We fix a,ba,b and induct over c

For c=0c=0, On the LHS,

(ab)0=0m×0=0\begin{aligned} (ab)0 & = 0 & m \times 0 = 0 \\ \end{aligned}

On the RHS,

a(b×0)=a(0)m×0=0=0\begin{aligned} a(b \times 0) & = a(0) & m \times 0 = 0 \\ & = 0 \end{aligned}

This covers the base case, suppose inductively that (a×b)×c=a×(b×c)(a \times b) \times c = a \times (b \times c)

For c=c++c = c++,

We have on the LHS,

(a×b)×(c++)=((ab)c)+abm×0=m=(ab)c+ab\begin{aligned} (a \times b) \times (c++) & = ((ab)c) + ab & m \times 0 = m \\ & = (ab)c + ab \\ \end{aligned}
We have on the RHS,

a×(b×(c++))=a((bc)+b)m×n++=m×n+m=a(bc)+abDistributive Law\begin{aligned} a \times (b \times (c++)) & = a((bc) + b) & m \times n++ = m \times n + m \\ & = a(bc) + ab & \text{Distributive Law} \\ \end{aligned}

From the inductive hypothesis, (ab)c=a(bc)(ab)c = a(bc), the LHS and the RHS statements are equivalent

Thus we have LHS = RHS

Closing the inductive hypothesis

(Preserving Order)

If a,ba,b are natural numbers such that a>ba>b and cc is positive, then ac>bcac > bc

Proof. If a>ba > b, we say that a=b+da = b+d where dd is a positive natural number.

Multiplying by cc on both sides,

ac=(b+d)cac=bc+cdDistributive Law\begin{aligned} ac & = (b+d)c & \\ ac & = bc + cd & \text{Distributive Law} \\ \end{aligned}
We know that cdcd is a positive natural number, so this is expressed in the form m=n+dm = n + d which is the same as writing m>cm > c

Thus we can write,

ac>bcac > bc

Let a,b,ca,b,c be natural numbers such that ac=bcac = bc and cc is non-zero. Then a=ba = b

Proof. Let's examine the three cases possible for a,ba,b

When a<ba<b, then ac<bcac < bc from the previous proposition which is a contradiction of the assumption.

When a>ba>b, then ac>bcac>bc from the previous proposition which is another contradiction of the assumption.

Thus, the only possible case is a=ba = b

(Division)

Let nn be a natural number and let qq be a postive number. Then there exists natural numbers m,rm,r such that 0rq0 \leq r \leq q and n=mq+rn= mq + r

Proof. Inducting over n,

For n=0n=0,

0=mq+r\begin{aligned} 0 & = mq+r \\ \end{aligned}

When a,bNa,b \in \mathbb{N}, a+b=0a + b = 0 if and only if a=b=0a=b=0 We know that,

m+0=m0+0=0\begin{aligned} m + 0 & = m & \\ 0 + 0 & = 0 \end{aligned}

The converse is easily true, since a+b=0a + b = 0, Thus the base case is true.

Suppose inductively that there exists m,rNm,r \in \mathbb{N} such that 0r<q0 \leq r < q and n=mq+rn=mq + r

For n++n++,

We can write,

n++=(mq+r)++=mq+r++Proved earlier\begin{aligned} n++ & = (mq + r)++ \\ & = mq + r++ & \text{Proved earlier} \\ \end{aligned}

Now we have two cases to look at here, We know that 0r<q0 \le r < q from the inductive hypothesis. But for r++r++, that is not necessarily the case, The range of (r++) becomes 0++r++<q++0++ \le r++ < q++ or 1r++q1 \le r++ \le q since a<ba<b if and only if a++ba++ \le b,

When 1r++<q1 \le r++ < q, we have closed the inductive loop but there is one more case to look at.

When r++=qr++ = q We have,

n++=mq+q=(m++)q\begin{aligned} n++ & = mq + q \\ & = (m++)q \\ \end{aligned}
Thus we have for this case, r=0r = 0, which satisfies the condition 0r<q0 \le r < q

Closing the inductive loop.

(Exponentiation)

Let mm be a natural number. To raise mm to the power m0m^0, we define m0:=1m^0 := 1. Now suppose recursively that mnm^n has been defined for some natural number nn then we define mn++=mn×mm^{n++} = m^n \times m

Thus we can write, m0=1,m1=m0+m=m,m2=m1+m=2mm^0 = 1, m^1 = m^0+m = m, m^2 = m^1 + m = 2m and so on

(Identity)

Prove,

(a+b)2=a2+b2+2ab(a + b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab

Proof. Take the RHS, We have,

(a+b)2=(a+b)(a+b)From the definition=(a+b)a+(a+b)bDistributive Law=aa+ba+ab+bb=a2+ba+ab+b2m2=m×m=a2+ab+ab+b2Commutativity of multiplication=a2+2ab+b2Definition of multiplication=a2+b2+2abCommutativity\begin{aligned} (a+b)^2 & = (a+b)(a+b) & \text{From the definition} \\ & = (a+b)a + (a+b)b & \text{Distributive Law} \\ & = aa + ba + ab + bb & \\ & = a^2 + ba + ab + b^2 & \text{$m^2 = m \times m$} \\ & = a^2 + ab + ab + b^2 & \text{Commutativity of multiplication} \\ & = a^2 + 2ab + b^2 & \text{Definition of multiplication} \\ & = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab & \text{Commutativity} \end{aligned}
Thus we have LHS = RHS

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Last modified: March 04, 2025.
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